We know that California Proposition 8, which codified marriage as being between a man and a woman, passed. We know there has been some "discussion" concerning the voting pattern:
Exit poll data showed seven in 10 black voters and more than half of Latino voters backed the ballot initiative, while whites and Asians were split.
Though blacks and Latinos combined make up less than one-third of California's electorate, their opposition to same-sex marriage appeared to tip the balance. Both groups decisively backed Obama regardless of their position on the initiative.
With this, homosexuals have been up in arms about how Blacks voted, with them and many commentators saying it passed BECAUSE OF the Black vote.
I got these stats from somewhere and can't find where I jacked them from. I think it was P6:
Non-Black Votes in Favor of Proposition 8:
White Women: 47% of 32% of 10,325,615 votes: 1,552,972 Yes
Latino Men: 54% of 8% of 10,325,615 votes: 446,067 Yes
Latino Women: 52% of 11% of 10,325,615 votes: 592,170 Yes
Asian/Native: 51% of 9% of 10,325,615 votes: 473,946 Yes
Total: 4,697,635 (9.3 times the maximum TOTAL number of Black votes in California.)
About 500,000 Black people voted in the California election.
If we go by the claim that 70% of Blacks voted for Prop 8, then 350,000 Black people voted for Prop. 8.
According to this link (at the time of this writing), there was 5,769,939 total votes in favor, 5,266,794 voted against Prop 8. That's a difference of 503,145. But if 350,000 Black people voted FOR Prop. 8, how can it be said that Prop 8 passed BECAUSE OF Black voters?